Quote:
Originally Posted by Botnst
IIRC, when either side breaches the Geneva Conventions it is the right of the offended belligerent to determine an appropriate response.
The rationale is a sort of "tit-for-tat" logical constraint. It doesn't always work but in the engagements in which the Conventions have been followed by both sides, civilians have suffered less than in wars in which they were not followed.
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How would we sue the other side for the breaches?
True. However, what happens when only one side follows it and not the other?