Originally Posted by Woody Worker

Desperate attempt to impart some moral equivalency by questioning the absence of an equilvalent response to unequivalent premises.

Islamic doctrine since its inception, as detailed in the Quran and the Hadith has ordained pedophilic sexual contact between adult males "married" to prepubescent females as virtuous, exemplified by the prophet Mohammed's conduct with his child bride Aisha.

There is no equilalent in RC doctine.

In the case of the RC pedophilia circumstances, individuals maybe even at the highest levels participated, facilitated and condoned the sexual abuse of children but there does not ever seen to have been any attempt to institutionalize the practice, to incorporate it into the theological doctrine. The RC institution has not ordained pedophilic sexual contact as virtue.