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  #16  
Old 12-12-2012, 12:33 PM
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That appears to be the poster's interpretation of the statements of Drs Quinsey and Gijseghem rather than the poster's own argument.

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  #17  
Old 12-12-2012, 02:23 PM
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Originally Posted by Botnst View Post
Explain how these descriptions differ from the way heterosexuals are attracted to members of the opposite sex.
Can a difference that doesn't exist be explained?
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  #18  
Old 12-12-2012, 03:17 PM
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My first wife tried her best to make me turn gay but was never successful. I am quite happy now though.

Anyone that may take offense to this please disregard - I'm just joking around.
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  #19  
Old 12-12-2012, 03:39 PM
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Originally Posted by engatwork View Post
My first wife tried her best to make me turn gay but was never successful. I am quite happy now though.

Anyone that may take offense to this please disregard - I'm just joking around.
Uh........... Jim. when you and your wife was at my house, she told me that you was gay.... Sup wid dat?
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  #20  
Old 12-12-2012, 03:46 PM
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You were talking to the second wife and NOT the first wife. I'm very gay (cheerful and happy) around the second wife. Let me know if you want me to introduce you to the first wife. Talk about losing balls, sheesh.
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  #21  
Old 12-12-2012, 03:55 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by engatwork View Post
My first wife tried her best to make me turn gay but was never successful. I am quite happy now though.

Anyone that may take offense to this please disregard - I'm just joking around.
How? Exposing you to gay porn? Make you dress up like a girl? Inquiring minds want to know.
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  #22  
Old 12-12-2012, 03:58 PM
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Reading is fundemental

Quote:
Originally Posted by davidmash View Post
So are you arguing that that there is no difference between consensual (same sex adult relationships) and non-consensual (pedophile) relationships?
It probably isn't understandable to those who effect prejudice and bigotry of "short eyes". But to most people the fact that the OP has chosen to title his thread ”Biological origin of homosexuality” the plain and reasonable understanding would be the biological origins of deviant sexual proclivities and not deviant sexual behavior. Maybe that isn't understandable to you?

What causes you to make the illogical and irrational leap from a discourse of the biological origins of mutations for deviant sexual orientation to the irrelevant present state of the evolving paradigm that is the social construct of “legal consent”. Why are you attempting to separate the biological imperative of humans to engage in sexual activity with other humans based solely on some arbitrary time frame? Why do you feel the need to differentiate and discriminate based on some exceedingly fluid parameter?

Its been put forward mentioned many times within discussions on the topics of sexual orientation, that it is often the case that the loudest voices against a particular orientation are eventually revealed as closeted practitioners of the very orientation they've railed against. Vociferous anti-homosexual voices have been revealed as closeted homosexuals, it seems likely that those who so often seek to demonize pedophilia would include closeted pedophiles among their hateful throng.



To respond to the off topic question about alleged differences between homosexuality and pedophilia.

It was only a few short decades ago that homosexuality was categorized as as a mental defect, the apparatus of state was employed to by any means correct such defect, homosexual behavior was criminalized, and homosexuality was a societal taboo.

Today pedophilia except in the most enlightened societies (Sweden and Islam), is considered as incorrigibly deviant as homosexuality was before we achieved our present state of enlightened tolerance. Pedophilia is only a crime because the society has yet to recognize and accept the full panoply of human rights for all humans regardless of the their chronological age.

The intolerant among us wallow in self righteousness as they deny the full human right of self determination to individuals who through no fault of their own have not yet existed the unjustly imposed requisite time period.
It seems that certain people are perfectly willing to deny fundamental human rights to large segments of the population based on nothing more than how long they have existed and certain people are perfectly willing to persecute those who are born with an orientation that is at odds with the discrimination those same certain people fail to object to.



Pedophiles are criminals only because certain people deny people under a certain age the human right to pursue happiness with people who are predisposed to be attracted to them. It's hate and bigotry imposed by a majority on a disenfranchised minority and those that seek to love with them.
If hateful and bigoted hearts could be opened and society could advance to appreciate the true beauty of all love between all humans then the stigma of sexual age-ism would cease to exist and everyone could live there life with the liberty to pursue their happiness.
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  #23  
Old 12-12-2012, 04:07 PM
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How? Exposing you to gay porn? Make you dress up like a girl? Inquiring minds want to know.
By being mean as hell and trying to convince me that all women were like that.
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  #24  
Old 12-12-2012, 04:08 PM
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Originally Posted by KarTek View Post
It seems like this is saying that the root cause of both behaviors may be similar but I don't believe that it's appropriate to lump both resulting behaviors into the same category. Anyone that would do this is confused or trying to start trouble.
But the topic of the thread and the article quoted is the root causes of behaviors, and you concure "the root cause of both behaviors may be similar"!

Isn't it davidmash, with his inability to understand the topic and discussion who is seeking through his question to imply falsely that the resulting behaviors are being lumpd into the same catagory? I wonder if he's confused or trying to start trouble?
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  #25  
Old 12-12-2012, 04:22 PM
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Originally Posted by engatwork View Post
By being mean as hell and trying to convince me that all women were like that.
You mean, me gone.

So, did you try men out and see if they were better?
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  #26  
Old 12-12-2012, 04:31 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mark Rapier View Post
It probably isn't understandable to those who effect prejudice and bigotry of "short eyes". But to most people the fact that the OP has chosen to title his thread ”Biological origin of homosexuality” the plain and reasonable understanding would be the biological origins of deviant sexual proclivities and not deviant sexual behavior. Maybe that isn't understandable to you?

What causes you to make the illogical and irrational leap from a discourse of the biological origins of mutations for deviant sexual orientation to the irrelevant present state of the evolving paradigm that is the social construct of “legal consent”. Why are you attempting to separate the biological imperative of humans to engage in sexual activity with other humans based solely on some arbitrary time frame? Why do you feel the need to differentiate and discriminate based on some exceedingly fluid parameter?

Its been put forward mentioned many times within discussions on the topics of sexual orientation, that it is often the case that the loudest voices against a particular orientation are eventually revealed as closeted practitioners of the very orientation they've railed against. Vociferous anti-homosexual voices have been revealed as closeted homosexuals, it seems likely that those who so often seek to demonize pedophilia would include closeted pedophiles among their hateful throng.



To respond to the off topic question about alleged differences between homosexuality and pedophilia.

It was only a few short decades ago that homosexuality was categorized as as a mental defect, the apparatus of state was employed to by any means correct such defect, homosexual behavior was criminalized, and homosexuality was a societal taboo.

Today pedophilia except in the most enlightened societies (Sweden and Islam), is considered as incorrigibly deviant as homosexuality was before we achieved our present state of enlightened tolerance. Pedophilia is only a crime because the society has yet to recognize and accept the full panoply of human rights for all humans regardless of the their chronological age.

The intolerant among us wallow in self righteousness as they deny the full human right of self determination to individuals who through no fault of their own have not yet existed the unjustly imposed requisite time period.
It seems that certain people are perfectly willing to deny fundamental human rights to large segments of the population based on nothing more than how long they have existed and certain people are perfectly willing to persecute those who are born with an orientation that is at odds with the discrimination those same certain people fail to object to.



Pedophiles are criminals only because certain people deny people under a certain age the human right to pursue happiness with people who are predisposed to be attracted to them. It's hate and bigotry imposed by a majority on a disenfranchised minority and those that seek to love with them.
If hateful and bigoted hearts could be opened and society could advance to appreciate the true beauty of all love between all humans then the stigma of sexual age-ism would cease to exist and everyone could live there life with the liberty to pursue their happiness.
I knew asking a question and expecting a rational response was a stupid idea before I hit submit but I did it any way. Ugh
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  #27  
Old 12-12-2012, 04:33 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mark Rapier View Post
Isn't it davidmash, with his inability to understand the topic and discussion who is seeking through his question to imply falsely that the resulting behaviors are being lumpd into the same catagory? I wonder if he's confused or trying to start trouble?
I did sense that a nerve was being touched there...
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  #28  
Old 12-12-2012, 04:46 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by davidmash View Post
I knew asking a question and expecting a rational response was a stupid idea before I hit submit but I did it any way. Ugh
It was a stupid question, but not unexpected.
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  #29  
Old 12-12-2012, 05:08 PM
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Quote:
So, did you try men out and see if they were better?
LOL, nope, not in this lifetime. Based on the article I ain't geared that way.

Quote:
You mean, me gone.
Unfortunately it took me a long time to figure this one out. I would not take anything for wife #2.
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  #30  
Old 12-12-2012, 06:02 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by kerry View Post
Does 'masculinization' and 'feminization' translate directly into homosexuality? By all appearances it doesn't.
Clearly, feminization of males and masculinization of females is related to homosexuality otherwise gadar wouldn't work worth a damn and people would be even more confused about gender identification than they are. Many homosexuals intentionally adopt the gender role of their chromosomal opposite.

However, I agree it is not a strict rule. There are plenty of exceptions that we could list. My sister, for example, is quite feminine in appearance but has been out-of-the-closet lesbian for 30 years or so. Her partner is also feminine looking.

OTOH, take a walk around say, Key West and your gaydar will scream at you. Gender expression is highly ambiguous. I suspect that as our culture evolves from stigmatizing sexual orientation to acceptance that we will see a wider expression of the various roles we choose to display.

In my opinion, unsupported by facts, human sexual orientation is partly genetic, partly epigenetic and partly behaviorial. I expect an increasing behavioral component as gender roles become less strictly defined.

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