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Originally Posted by t walgamuth
i didnt say nixon had them assassinated. i said he was assisted by their assassinations. the difference is specific.
what ifs are of course impossible to prove.
but if RFK had run, and as it appeared in 68 he would have been the dem nom. maybe he wouldnt have been elected, but at the time it appeared he would. the sentiment for the fallen JFK was very strong. of course back then nobody much knew about his infidelity.
and if wallace had been on the ballot taking all the bigot dem and rep votes it would have been a probable dem victory since a lot more bigot rs voted for nixon than bigot dems voted for mcgovern. no, they would have voted for nixon for sure. his bigotry was at least disguised enough to fool the ones who were fooling themselves about their own bigotry but it was there.
btw, am i predjudiced? yes. i try not to be but i still am.
so you seriously think anyone who would have voted for wallace would have as an alternative voted for mcgovern?
just me. these thoughts are obvious but too radical for mainstream media to touch. but with what we know now, do you doubt that it is possible?
i do not
tom w
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Tom, I have agreed with you in the past. On this one I think you are wrong.
I don't think that Wallace could have syphoned enough votes from Nixon to make a difference. Look at Nixon's margin of victory over McGovern. It was a landslide.
Perot may have made a difference, Nader may have made a difference (notice teh use of "may"). But Wallace was too far out to matter.
BTW, a pox on mainstream media!
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