I didn't see a 3. definition. I just think, it's always a good idea to go back and start assessing from the original meanig of the word.

As we all know, words' meanings have evolved from it's original sense, particularly when it comes to the arena of politics.

A remarkable example is "Voluntary" applied to the US tax system. We all know, it's not voluntary, yet by simply calling it such and comparing it to other tax systems, which are not called voluntary, the creators of it insist on saying it is voluntary.

Back to appeasement.

As it is evident, it all comes down to Chamberlain and his concessions to Hitler.
It produceses the same anology everytime and closes the gap to 3. Reich history and from there serves as a general justifier for any preemtive measure.

I'd like someone to show me, where the term appeasement is used in a different political context.

__________________