Originally Posted by Botnst

Is it the general opinion that if a citizen-victim is obeying the law and is threatened or attacked by another person causing the victim to fear for his life, that the citizen is justified in using deadly force?

Originally Posted by davidmash

I believe that is incorrect. There was a case a few years ago (I think it was discussed on here in fact) about a man who was on the line with 911 regrading a burglary next door. He told the 911 that he was going to shoot them or something along those lines. He went out side, told the thief's to stop, they did not and he shot at least one of them. The grand jury did not issue and indictment.