He would need to actually prove, IMO, that the cop in question did violate the law in the way he publicly said the cop violated the law, or that he had reason to believe that the cop violated the law, and there was no malice in his belief.

Charges against him for criminal libel were dropped. It does not mean that a determination was made that the statements were provably NOT libelous, only that the DA decided not to press criminal charges, likely because the question of actual malice was not addressed or established to the required level.


Committing libel is not a first amendment right.