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  #16  
Old 07-01-2012, 03:49 PM
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Originally Posted by jlomon View Post
Because adults are capable of giving legal consent and minors are not.
Unfortunately the question posed is not about behavior but about the inherent and immutable inclination, you do understand that, right?

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  #17  
Old 07-01-2012, 04:08 PM
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Originally Posted by davidmash View Post
There is no evidence to suggest that homosexuality and pedophilia are in any way related. The fact that they may both be genetic does not show that they are in any way linked any more than height and eye color are.

The fact that a gay man was a pedophile is no more surprising than the fact that straight men are pedophile. Linking the two has no basis in science.

As mentioned above, animals and minor do not have the ability to give consent.

Whether the Brinkman was a victim of genetics or not does not matter. One is a criminal act the other is not. The fact that you seem to be trying to link the two when no link is proven further weakens your argument.

The pope knowingly helped hide known rapists so legally he is complicit in the crime. Now you are interested in proof? You do not seem to be concerned with proof in regards to any of the BS spewed above so why the concern now?
So you deny that heterosexual, homosexual, pedophilia, beastiality, etc. are not equally valid human sexual proclivities? Seems like a very subjective, prejudiced and bigoted attitude completely unsupported by science unless you have some data to offer to substansiate your declaration that different inherent and immutable human sexual impulses are not related. Do you know of or have any data to support such an intolerant and hateful attitude?

PS I will point out that in fact it was you who raised the issue of linkage between homosexuality and pedophilia by trying to de-couple the two variations of human sexual inclination! I simply asked if Brinkin was a victim of fate or not, you seem to in the case of homosexuality attribute that inclination to an inherent and immutable factor but refuse to apply equal deference to an equally inherent and immutable inclination to sexual gratification with infants. Maybe you can share with the wider audience how in your mind such inclinations are unequal and differ in origin?
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  #18  
Old 07-01-2012, 04:14 PM
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I do not care if a behavior is genetic or not. I think what is being argued is whether or not the behavior violates a persons rights. If no rights are violated then have at it. If a behavior violates another rights then you better find a.way.to control it or society will. Whether a behavior is genetic or not is irrelevant.

I find it obscene to try and link homosexuality with pedophiles or beastiality just because the they may be genetic.

There is no basis in law to violate someone's personal rights based on thru genetic make up of another.
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  #19  
Old 07-01-2012, 04:23 PM
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Originally Posted by davidmash View Post
Not sure the point is that obvious but what ever. I still do not see the point of the thread. One act involves consenting adults the others do not.

So what is the purpose of linking the two together in a thread? The fact that something genetic or not does not dictate legality or not.
Did you read the article? Because it is quite clear that the facts of the circumstance link homosexuality with pedophilia not the thread about the circumstance! What is your purpose of attempting to delink these two co-joined facts of this circumstance?

Why are you trying to interject the subjectivity of "legalities" when as far as I can see no one has questioned whether sex with infants should or should not be "legal"?

Why shouldn't people view your own portrayed intolerance of pedophilic inclination as evidence of repressed latent pedophilic inclinations just as homosexuals and their advocates view the portrayed intolerance of homosexual inclination as evidence of repressed latent homosexual inclinations?
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  #20  
Old 07-01-2012, 04:28 PM
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Originally Posted by MTUpower View Post
Obviously the point raised here is that gays are born wanting sex with men and it's part of ingrained nature- not part of learning. Gays have no choice and it's natural. We see gay traits in the animal world and I think a gay is gay because he is gay, not because he saw some great advertising which made him gay, or that he had a traumatic childhood experience.

Knowing that- how is wanting to have sex with infants any different? Did a person learn to want to have sex with infants? This behavior is no different with that regard- it's ingrained nature.

We have societal laws regarding sex because those laws have helped create a strong society. Now many of those laws are being changed- if they help or hurt society is up for debate.
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Originally Posted by MTUpower View Post
How does looking at naked pictures of infants involve consent? I believe the point is that once this "ingrained" and not learned is on solid footing then a whole host of other "ingrained" behavior is now closer to having a legit reason for otherwise inexcusable actions.
Thanks for ably demonstrating the cognative superiority of a chess master among a field of checker chumps! It is refreshing and appreciated.
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  #21  
Old 07-01-2012, 04:47 PM
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Originally Posted by davidmash View Post
I do not care if a behavior is genetic or not. I think what is being argued is whether or not the behavior violates a persons rights. If no rights are violated then have at it. If a behavior violates another rights then you better find a.way.to control it or society will. Whether a behavior is genetic or not is irrelevant.

I find it obscene to try and link homosexuality with pedophiles or beastiality just because the they may be genetic.

There is no basis in law to violate someone's personal rights based on thru genetic make up of another.
After reading the question and reading the article is that really the best conclusion you're capable of?

If so, it seems that the capacity to understand the nature and intent of the question that was originally posed has been exceeded. Instead it appears that in response the only refuge is to veer off into territory divorced from the the thread's clear central question. Perhaps there is some comfort in avoiding a disturbing reality and cowering behind prejudice and bigotry of those with whom you deny empathy towards their inherent and immutable selve? Does hating feel good?
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  #22  
Old 07-01-2012, 05:08 PM
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Originally Posted by MTUpower View Post
How does looking at naked pictures of infants involve consent? I believe the point is that once this "ingrained" and not learned is on solid footing then a whole host of other "ingrained" behavior is now closer to having a legit reason for otherwise inexcusable actions.
A very interesting case study would be the of the Mattachine Society and NAMBLA, not inconsequentially Harry Hay's involvment and support in the advocacy strategies and efforts of both organizations!
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  #23  
Old 07-01-2012, 06:09 PM
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Damn, I have a genetic attraction to women. It doesn't mean I should rape them.
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  #24  
Old 07-01-2012, 06:19 PM
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Originally Posted by Kuan View Post
Damn, I have a genetic attraction to women. It doesn't mean I should rape them.
Damn, the fact that the question posed was about inherent and immutable inclination of being "Born this way" isn't obvious even after all the discussion thus far?

Because there is no evidence yet to suggest that Brinkin himself committed homosexual rape of an infant of African descent contained in the article, he thus far apparently just enjoyed observing it happen and discussing it happening with others, or doesn't the article's fact set make that clear enough?
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  #25  
Old 07-01-2012, 06:25 PM
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Damn how would I know? It's obvious that for them it's a somewhat uncontrollable urge. What does DSM IV say about it?
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  #26  
Old 07-01-2012, 06:33 PM
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Originally Posted by Kuan View Post
Damn how would I know? It's obvious that for them it's a somewhat uncontrollable urge. What does DSM IV say about it?
I for one, really appreciate you openly and frankly sharing your lack of knowing! I think that is a vastly underappreciated quality!

The DSM IV? Is that a particularly authoritative favorite for some reason?
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  #27  
Old 07-01-2012, 06:48 PM
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Originally Posted by Killer View Post
Heterosexuality, homosexuality, pedophilia, beastiality etc. are all nothing more than data points within the spectrum of human sexual inclination none any better or any worse than any other the other, the only criteria is whether or not there exists a societial consensus is that by some subjective metric there is an imbalance between percieved "good" and "bad" impact?

Yes, the issue is 'good' and 'bad' as determined by human beings. What else could moral judgments possibly be determined by? I don't think 'good' or 'bad' are perceived. They are judgments a person makes, related to perception but not perceived.
You're stirring the pot with a complete red herring. Many forms of sociopathy and psychopathy seem to be rooted in different brain structures, yet this provides no reason for thinking that allowing sociopaths to engage in violent behavior is a social good. Bone up on your Catholic moral theology.
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  #28  
Old 07-01-2012, 07:36 PM
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Originally Posted by kerry View Post
Yes, the issue is 'good' and 'bad' as determined by human beings. What else could moral judgments possibly be determined by? I don't think 'good' or 'bad' are perceived. They are judgments a person makes, related to perception but not perceived.
You're stirring the pot with a complete red herring. Many forms of sociopathy and psychopathy seem to be rooted in different brain structures, yet this provides no reason for thinking that allowing sociopaths to engage in violent behavior is a social good. Bone up on your Catholic moral theology.
Clearly, I spoke specifically of the perception of the imbalance between judgements good and bad not of the basis for the judgements thenselves, is that not clear?

On what basis is my question about whether an inherent and immutable inclination to homosexual gratification with infants of African descent is any more or less of a red herring than the purported contention that the inherent and immutable inclination to homosexual gratification with persons other than infants of African descent is not any less valid than the inherent and immutable inclination to heterosexual gratification congruent with the biological imperative of the species?

Inherent and immutable heterosexuality is within the huge range of the specie's "Normal", correct?

Inherent and immutable homosexuality is within the huge range of the species "Normal", correct?

Inherent and immutable homosexual pedophilia is within the huge range of the specie's "Normal", not correct?


I don't think that I have made an argument that allowing a particular behavior is good or bad, have I done so in your mind? In fact it seems that there exists a distiction between inclination and behavior is beyond the cognative grasp of a particular faction of responders, no?

What do you imagine my questioning has anything to do with "Catholic moral theology"? Seems to be more of a personal touchstone for you, having referenced it twice when no one else has.
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  #29  
Old 07-01-2012, 07:42 PM
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Yes, you have. You use the word 'valid' repeatedly. What could that word mean in this context apart from 'acceptable' or 'good'.

I reference Catholic moral theology because it is a longstanding moral tradition in our culture which clearly draws a line between judging whether something is genetic or 'natural' is different than judging whether it is good or bad. Catholic moral theologians think that it is a least possible, if not likely that homosexuality is not a choice, but this does not cause them any problems in judging that it is not good.
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  #30  
Old 07-01-2012, 07:56 PM
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Killer: you don't get much thrill from actually pulling the trigger, do you?

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